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NEW QUESTION: 1
What are the various outputs of risk response?
A. Project management plan and Project document updates
B. Risk register updates
C. Residual risk
D. Risk Priority Number
E. Risk-related contract decisions
Answer: A,B,E
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The outputs of the risk response planning process are:
Risk Register Updates: The risk register is written in detail so that it can be related to the priority

ranking and the planned response.
Risk Related Contract Decisions: Risk related contract decisions are the decisions to transmit risk, such

as services, agreements for insurance, and other items as required. It provides a means for sharing risks.
Project Management Plan Updates: Some of the elements of the project management plan updates

are:
- Schedule management plan
- Cost management plan
- Quality management plan
- Procurement management plan
- Human resource management plan
- Work breakdown structure
- Schedule baseline
- Cost performance baseline
Project Document Updates: Some of the project documents that can be updated includes:

- Assumption log updates
- Technical documentation updates
Incorrect Answers:
A: Risk priority number is not an output for risk response but instead it is done before applying response.
Hence it act as one of the inputs of risk response and is not the output of it.
B: Residual risk is not an output of risk response. Residual risk is the risk that remains after applying controls. It is not feasible to eliminate all risks from an organization. Instead, measures can be taken to reduce risk to an acceptable level. The risk that is left is residual risk. As, Risk = Threat Vulnerability and Total risk = Threat Vulnerability Asset Value Residual risk can be calculated with the following formula:
Residual Risk = Total Risk - Controls
Senior management is responsible for any losses due to residual risk. They decide whether a risk should be avoided, transferred, mitigated or accepted. They also decide what controls to implement. Any loss due to their decisions falls on their sides.
Residual risk assessments are conducted after mitigation to determine the impact of the risk on the enterprise. For risk assessment, the effect and frequency is reassessed and the impact is recalculated.

NEW QUESTION: 2
Which two statements about the Peer Firmware Sharing option for IP phone firmware distribution are true?
(Choose two.)
A. This option allows firmware transfers between phones in different subnets, as long as the round-trip delay is less than 5 milliseconds.
B. This option mandates that the parent phone and child phones be identical, selected phone models.
C. This option must be enabled on Cisco Unified Communications Manager service parameters for Cisco TFTP.
D. This option allows falling back to the TFTP server in the Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster.
E. This option uses a parent-child hierarchy in which a firmware image is downloaded by a parent phone to up to three directly associated child phones.
F. This option uses a parent-child hierarchy that must be manually defined by the Cisco Unified Communications Manager administrator.
Answer: B,D
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Peer Firmware Sharingworks by setting up a parent-child hierarchy of the phones in which a firmware image is downloaded by the parent phone to a child phone. The advantage of using Peer Firmware Sharing is that instead of all phones individually retrieving a software image, they pass the image along from one phone to another phone on the same subnet.
Advantage of PFS:
-Hierarchy is automatic
-One download per phone model on a subnet
-Uses TCP
-Fails back to TFTP
-Speeds up LAN upgrades
-Reduces TFTP CPU load during upgrade

NEW QUESTION: 3
An architect is tasked with designing a greenfield VMware software-defined data center (SDDC) solution that will be used to deliver a private cloud service for a customer.
During the initial meeting with the service owner and business sponsor, the customer has provided the following information to help inform the design:
The solution must initially support the concurrent running of 300 production and 600 development virtual machines.
The production environment should be delivered across two geographically dispersed data centers. The development environment must be vSphere-based but does not have to be deployed on-premises.
The two data centers are connected to each other through multiple diversely routed, high bandwidth and low latency links.
The customer's server hardware standard document states that all virtual infrastructure hosts must be based on blade architecture only.
The service owner has said that is important to ensure that neither the availability target of 99.5% nor the resource capacity is affected when the operations team completes maintenance activities, such as the monthly software patching and ad-hoc hardware break/fix.
All virtual machine backups must be completed using the existing backup service. The recovery time objective (RTO) for the service is four hours.
The recovery point objective (RPO) of the service is 24 hours.
Given the information from the customer, which two would be classified as assumptions within the design? (Choose two.)
A. The backup service will store data in a secure facility
B. The customer will update their hardware standard to support rack mount servers
C. The clusters will have a minimum redundancy of N+1
D. All virtual machines will be deployed with the same resource profile for production and development
E. The backup service has sufficient capacity for the new requirements
Answer: A,B