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FC0-U61 Valid Study Guide & CompTIA FC0-U61 Valid Real Test - New FC0-U61 Test Testking - FreeTorrent

FC0-U61

Exam Code: FC0-U61

Exam Name: CompTIA IT Fundamentals+ Certification Exam

Version: V22.75

Q & A: 580 Questions and Answers

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NEW QUESTION: 1
Welche der folgenden Aussagen gibt eine Einschränkung bei der Verwendung statischer Analysewerkzeuge richtig an? [K1]
A. Statische Analysewerkzeuge können auf neuen Code angewendet werden, jedoch nicht auf vorhandenen Code
B. Statische Analysetools generieren immer eine große Anzahl von Warnmeldungen, wenn sie auf neuen Code angewendet werden.
auch wenn der Code den Codierungsstandards entspricht
C. Statische Analysetools generieren keine Warnmeldungen, wenn sie auf vorhandenen Code angewendet werden
D. Statische Analysewerkzeuge können verwendet werden, um Codierungsstandards durchzusetzen
Answer: D

NEW QUESTION: 2
Eugene Price, CFA, a portfolio manager for the American Universal Fund (AUF), has been directed to pursue a contingent immunization strategy for a portfolio with a current market value of $100 million. AUF's trustees are not willing to accept a rate of return less than 6% over the next five years. The trustees have also stated that they believe an immunization rate of 8% is attainable in today's market. Price has decided to implement this strategy by initially purchasing $100 million in 10-year bonds with an annual coupon rate of 8.0%, paid semiannually.
Price forecasts that the prevailing immunization rate and market rate for the bonds will both rise from 8% to
9% in one year.
While Price is conducting his immunization strategy he is approached by April Banks, a newly hired junior analyst at AUF. Banks is wondering what steps need to be taken to immunize a portfolio with multiple liabilities. Price states that the concept of single liability immunization can fortunately be extended to address the issue of immunizing a portfolio with multiple liabilities. He further states that there are two methods for managing multiple liabilities. The first method is cash flow matching which involves finding a bond with a maturity date equal to the liability payment date, buying enough in par value of that bond so that the principal and final coupon fully fund the last liability, and continuing this process until all liabilities are matched. The second method is horizon matching which ensures that the assets and liabilities have the same present values and durations.
Price warns Banks about the dangers of immunization risk. He states that it is impossible to have a portfolio with zero immunization risk, because reinvestment risk will always be present. Price tells Banks,
"Be cognizant of the dispersion of cash flows when conducting an immunization strategy. When there is a high dispersion of cash flows about the horizon date, immunization risk is high. It is better to have cash flows concentrated around the investment horizon, since immunization risk is reduced." The initial dollar safety margin is closest to:
A. $42.74 million.
B. $9.21 million.
C. $34.39 million.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The required terminal value at the initial safety net return of 6% is:
$100 million (1.03)10 = $134.39 million
The amount required to achieve the required terminal value at the current immunization rate of 8% over the five remaining years is 134.39 million / (1.04)10 = $90.79 million.
So, the dollar safety margin is $100 million - $90.79 million = $9.21 million. (Study Session 9, LOS 29.i)

NEW QUESTION: 3
A 16-year-old client with a diagnosis of oppositional defiant disorder is threatening violence toward another child. In managing a potentially violent client, the nurse:
A. Must use the least restrictive measure possible to control the behavior
B. Should allow other clients to observe the acting out so that they can learn from the experience
C. Should apply full restraints until the behavior is under control
D. Should put the client in seclusion until he promises to behave appropriately
Answer: A
Explanation:
(A) This answer is correct. Least restrictive measures should always be attempted before a client is placed in seclusion or restraints. The nurse should first try a calm verbal approach, suggest a quiet room, or request that the client take "time-out" before placing the client in seclusion, givingmedication as necessary, or restraining. (B) This answer is incorrect. A calm verbal approach or requesting that a client go to his room should be attempted before restraining. (C) This answer is incorrect. Restraints should be applied only after all other measures fail to control the behavior. (D) This answer is incorrect. Other clients should be removed from the area. It is often very anxiety producing for other clients to see a peer out of control. It could also lead to mass acting- out behaviors.

NEW QUESTION: 4
Which of the following interface types are never found on an Arista switch?
A. Ethernet
B. auxiliary
C. console
D. management
Answer: B

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